Read verse 50 of Surah 42: “Or he makes both males and both females marry and he renders who He wills barren. Indeed Allah is knowing and competent.”
Verse 50 has been traditionally explained as a continuation of verse 49.
Verse 49 says: “To Allah belongs the dominion of the Heavens and the earth; He creates what He wills. He gives to whom He wills female children, and He gives to whom He wills males.”
The traditional interpretation is that God gives whoever He chooses females, or boys v49 then the interpretation of verse 50 is a simple extension saying or both females and males children (V. 50)
However the verb used in verse 50 is to Marry/ not to give children. The interpretation translates it as ( gives them a pair )which is plausible. I am not saying I am right and they are wrong. I am saying that the possibility exists and we need to explore it.
Further proof of my argument is the fact that the words used for males and females are in the dual form. If God meant to say gives female and male children why did not God use plural instead of dual form. Additionally, the word “children” is not used.
يزوجهم ذكرانا وإناثا
I had a discussion once with a sheik who did not deny that it said marry both males, or both females. Then he added that it refers to simple forms of animals and he used the verse to say that Koran had correct scientific knowledge even before science gives us proof of it.
My personal belief is verse 50 says that God chooses two males or two females to marry and makes whoever he chooses barren (Even if it is couple male and female).
I do not see a contradiction with the verse condemning People of Lot because maybe people of
Thank you for the question and keep the questions coming.