Monday, April 25, 2011

Sharia law is for Muslims only!

There is evidence in Koran that Sharia law is meant to be used only for Muslims. To even suggest using any part of Sharia law to non-Muslims is to go against the intent of the Sharia itself as prescribed by Allah.
Read verse 48, from Surah 5:
“ And we have revealed to you the book in truth confirming that which predeeded it of the Scripture and as a criterion over it. So judge between them by what Allah has revealed and do not follow their inclinations away from what has come to you of the truth. To each of you, We prescribed a law and a method. Had Allah Willed, He Would have made you one nation but to test you in what He has given you; so race to good. To Allah your return all together, and He will inform you concerning that over which you used to differ.” Surah 5, verse 48

Another verse which illustrates that God is the only judge for non- Muslims
is Surah 45, verse 17. Actually we should read from verse 16 &17
" And we did certainly give the children of Israel the Scripture and judgment and prophethood, and we provided them with good things and preferred them over the worlds." verse 16
" And We gave them clear proofs of the matter. And they did not differ except after knowledge had come to them. Indeed your Lord will judge between them on the day of Resurrection concerning that over which they used to differ. "

Additionally to define Jihad as convert people to Islam is also a false notion. The duty of Muslims is to stay Muslims not to convert others to Islam.


1 comment:

  1. "Sunshine Sam" Klein (a "Jewish Sufi")April 25, 2011 at 8:03 PM

    Technically, I believe you are "Right", Samara. (The Jewish Faith, as well, does not seek to "Convert Others"). But I believe all so-called "Terrorist Groups", such as Al Quaida, Hezbollah, Hamas, Muslim Brotherhood, etc.- are changing the "meaning" of the word "Jihad" (which I am told, originally meant an "Inward Struggle" with ONESELF rather than a "Holy War", as THEY "define" it!) As for "Sharia Law", I trust your opinion, that it is used as a "Religious" pretext, when it is originally, a "Man Made Law" written by "Cultural-Extremist" Men, to hold "Power Over Women" (if I understand you correctly, & that is what you "believe"?)